What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EBC$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{EF} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BED$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle ACB \cong \angle BDE$ Proof $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EFC$ because ASA $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BDE$ because vertical angles are equal $ \overline{DE} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle ABC$ because AAS $ \overline{BC} \cong \overline{BD}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle EBD \cong \triangle EBC$ because SSS
Answer: Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \angle BDE \cong \angle BAC$ is the first wrong statement.